This work can BEST be described as

This work can BEST be described as

a) Etruscan
b) Hellenistic Greek
c) Early Christian
d) Byzantine







Answer: C

Which of the following artists is NOT associated with the Romantic movement?

Which of the following artists is NOT associated with the Romantic movement?

a) Peter Paul Rubens
b) Francisco Goya
c) Eugene Delacroix
d) Theodore Gericault









Answer: A

This work was painted by

This work was painted by

a) Rembrandt
b) Caravaggio
c) Ribera
d) Rubens









Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT a feature or characteristic of Rogier van der Weyden's Deposition?

Which of the following is NOT a feature or characteristic of Rogier van der Weyden's Deposition?

a) restraint and calm
b) shallow field of depth
c) extreme naturalistic detail
d) realistic portraiture









Answer: A

This work was created during the

This work was created during the

a) 14th century
b) 15th century
c) 16th century
d) 17th century








Answer: C

The elongated figures and ambiguity of space seen in El Greco's Burial of Count Orgaz, especially in the depiction of a heavenly realm, links the work MOSTLY to what movement?

The elongated figures and ambiguity of space seen in El Greco's Burial of Count Orgaz, especially in the depiction of a heavenly realm, links the work MOSTLY to what movement?

a) Gothic
b) Mannerism
c) Baroque
d) Rococo








Answer: B

All of the following architectural elements are depicted here EXCEPT

All of the following architectural elements are depicted here EXCEPT

a) mullions
b) coffers
c) pilasters
d) spandrels









Answer: A

Michelangelo's Last Judgment fresco was painted during the papacy of

Michelangelo's Last Judgment fresco was painted during the papacy of

a) Julius II
b) Paul III
c) Urban VIII
d) Leo X








Answer: B

This "unknown" work is

This "unknown" work is

a) Etruscan
b) Late Roman
c) Hellenistic
d) Classical Greek








Answer: C

Which of the following was created last?

Which of the following was created last?

a) Etruscan sarcophagus with reclining couple
b) Dying Gaul from Pergamon
c) Grave Stele of Hegeso
d) Ludovisi Battle Sarcophagus








Answer: D

This is a copy of an original that is

This is a copy of an original that is 

a) Etruscan
b) Late Classical Greek
c) Hellenistic Greek
d) Late Roman







Answer: C

Grunewald's Isenheim Altarpiece was created primarily for

Grunewald's Isenheim Altarpiece was created primarily for 

a) a private chapel for a wealthy banker
b) a guild for display in a town hall
c) a refectory in a monastery
d) a chapel attached to a hospital






Answer: D

This fresco is found in a chapel commissioned by

This fresco is found in a chapel commissioned by 

a) Nicolas Rolin
b) Andres Nunez
c) Enrico Scrovegni
d) Domenico Lenzi







Answer: C

Which of the following artists worked primarily during the 14th century?

Which of the following artists worked primarily during the 14th century?

a) Masaccio
b) Giotto
c) Caravaggio
d) El Greco








Answer: B

This work was created by

This work was created by

a) Rogier van der Weyden
b) Matthias Grunewald
c) Peter Paul Rubens
d) Jan van Eyck











Answer: A

Which of the following works was created first?

Which of the following works was created first?

a) Grunewald's Isenheim Altarpiece
b) Michelangelo's Last Judgment
c) Masaccio's Holy Trinity
d) Caravaggio's Death of the Virgin








Answer: C

This work was painted by

This work was painted by

a) Francisco de Zurburan
b) Caravaggio
c) Jusepe de Ribera
d) Peter Paul Rubens







Answer: A

Which of the following events occurred just prior to Michelangelo's painting his Last Judgement fresco in the Sistine Chapel, possibly explaining the work's pessimistic tone?

Which of the following events occurred just prior to Michelangelo's painting his Last Judgement fresco in the Sistine Chapel, possibly explaining the work's pessimistic tone?

a) St. Bartholomew's Day Massacre
b) Siege of Malta defeating Turkish forces
c) Great Western Schism
d) Sack of Rome by Spanish troops










Answer: D

This sarcophagus is

This sarcophagus is

a) Greek
b) Etruscan
c) Late Roman
d) Early Christian




Answer: C

The Bayeux Tapestry was created during the

The Bayeux Tapestry was created during the

a) 10th century
b) 11th century
c) 12th century
d) 13th century








Answer: B

The artist who created this work is

The artist who created this work is 

a) Skopas
b) Douris
c) Euphronios
d) Exekias











Answer: D

The so-called Peplos Kore is now thought to be a depiction of a

The so-called Peplos Kore is now thought to be a depiction of a

a) goddess
b) soldier
c) prostitute
d) god








Answer: A

This fresco was discovered in the

This fresco was discovered in the

a) Tomb of the Leopards at Tarquinia
b) Tomb of the Reliefs at Cerveteri
c) Tomb of the Augurs at Tarquinia
d) Francois Tomb in Vulci









Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT an Etruscan site?

Which of the following is NOT an Etruscan site?

a) Vulci
b) Paestum
c) Cerveteri
d) Tarquinia







Answer: B

This sculpture is associated with which of the following periods?

This sculpture is associated with which of the following periods?

a) Archaic Greek
b) Classical Greek
c) Late Classical Greek
d) Hellenistic Greek










Answer: D

The shapes on the Geometric Greek krater can BEST be described as

The shapes on the Geometric Greek krater can BEST be described as

a) stylized
b) naturalistic
c) idealized
d) illusionistic








Answer: A

This object is made of

This object is made of

a) terracotta
b) jade
c) wood
d) marble








Answer: B

In Chinese art, a bi disk is generally associated with

In Chinese art, a bi disk is generally associated with 

a) the earth
b) the oceans
c) the mountains
d) the heavens








Answer: D

These terra-cotta soldiers were created during the

These terra-cotta soldiers were created during the

a) 3rd century BCE
b) 1st century BCE
c) 2nd century CE
d) 4th century CE









Answer: A

Images created on the walls of Etruscan tombs suggest a view of the afterlife that can BEST be described as

Images created on the walls of Etruscan tombs suggest a view of the afterlife that can BEST be described as

a) celebratory and festive
b) gloomy and dark
c) misty and vast
d) orderly and authoritative








Answer: A

This sculpture can BEST be described as

This sculpture can BEST be described as

a) Greek
b) Chinese
c) Persian
d) Etruscan








Answer: D

Etruscan tombs are in the shape of mounds known as

Etruscan tombs are in the shape of mounds known as 

a) conches
b) tumuli
c) kraters
d) fibulas








Answer: B

This fresco was discovered in the

This fresco was discovered in the

a) Tomb of the Leopards at Tarquinia
b) Tomb of the Reliefs at Cerveteri
c) Tomb of the Augurs at Tarquinia
d) Francois Tomb in Vulci







Answer: C

The Altar of Zeus at Pergamon was created during the

The Altar of Zeus at Pergamon was created during the

a) 3rd century BCE
b) 2nd century BCE
c) 1st century BCE
d) 1st century CE









Answer: B

This grave marker is in the shape of a vase known as a/an

This grave marker is in the shape of a vase known as a/an

a) lekythos
b) kylix
c) krater
d) amphora








Answer: D

Which of the following works BEST exemplifies what is known as "horror vacui"?

Which of the following works BEST exemplifies what is known as "horror vacui"?

a) Etruscan tomb paintings
b) Northern Song Chinese landscapes
c) Pueblo kiva paintings
d) Geometric Greek vases







Answer: D

This woven blanket depicts an image made by the Navajo as a sand painting, created for a ceremony called a

This woven blanket depicts an image made by the Navajo as a sand painting, created for a ceremony called a

a) chant
b) potlatch
c) libation
d) symposium







Answer: A

A krater is a Greek vase used for

A krater is a Greek vase used for

a) storage of wine or oil
b) mixing wine and water
c) a drinking cup
d) carrying water







Answer: B

This statue is a depiction of

This statue is a depiction of

a) Laocoon
b) Dionysos
c) Poseidon
d) Alkyoneos









Answer: A

The lower section of the funeral banner of Lady Dai shows the offerings and ceremonies devoted to her body soul, or

The lower section of the funeral banner of Lady Dai shows the offerings and ceremonies devoted to her body soul, or

a) qi
b) hun
c) po
d) bi








Answer: C

This image in this relief can BEST be described as a/an

This image in this relief can BEST be described as a/an

a) allegorical narrative
b) votive offering
c) historical event
d) genre scene








Answer: D

The jade suit of Prince Liu Sheng was created during the

The jade suit of Prince Liu Sheng was created during the

a) Zhou Dynasty
b) Qin Dynasty
c) Han Dynasty
d) Northern Song Dynasty






Answer: C

This tomb was created by the

This tomb was created by the

a) Etruscans
b) Greeks
c) Chinese
d) Egyptians








Answer: A

The depiction of the gigantomachy on the Pergamon frieze of the Altar of Zeus alludes to a war waged between the Hellenistic Greeks and the

The depiction of the gigantomachy on the Pergamon frieze of the Altar of Zeus alludes to a war waged between the Hellenistic Greeks and the

a) Goths
b) Gauls
c) Persians
d) Romans








Answer: B

This stele was created during the

This stele was created during the

a) 6th century BCE
b) 5th century BCE
c) 4th century BCE
d) 3rd century BCE




Answer: C

The strict, orderly placement of the Shaanxi terra-cotta soldiers within the tomb of Shi Huangdi reflects the emperor's adherence to the principles of

The strict, orderly placement of the Shaanxi terra-cotta soldiers within the tomb of Shi Huangdi reflects the emperor's adherence to the principles of

a) Daoism
b) Chan Buddhism
c) Neo-Confucianism
d) Legalism









Answer: D

This Greek statue was created during the

This Greek statue was created during the

a) Geometric period
b) Orientalizing period
c) Archaic period
d) Classical period









Answer: C

Edmund Burke's concept of the sublime influenced artists associated with what movement, art historical period, or style?

Edmund Burke's concept of the sublime influenced artists associated with what movement, art historical period, or style?

a) Renaissance
b) Rococo
c) Neoclassical
d) Romanticism








Answer: D

This work is part of a series of paintings commissioned by a/an

This work is part of a series of paintings commissioned by a/an

a) Spanish diplomat
b) Flemish merchant
c) Bavarian duke
d) Italian banker









Answer: B

In addition to painting on silk, Guo Xi also created

In addition to painting on silk, Guo Xi also created

a) sculptural works for Buddhist temples
b) jade carvings for the emperor's tomb
c) murals for imperial palaces
d) silk garments for the Silk Road







Answer: C

This "unknown" work was created by

This "unknown" work was created by

a) J. M. W. Turner
b) John Constable
c) Jacques Louis David
d) Eugene Delacroix








Answer: A

Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx size in adult males, then

Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx size in adult males, then 

A) sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these species.
B) intrasexual selection seems to have occurred.
C) stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx size.
D) selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype.






Answer: A

During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following terms are appropriately applied to this situation?

During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following terms are appropriately applied to this situation? 

A) sexual selection
B) mate choice
C) intersexual selection
D) Three of the responses are correct.
E) Two of the responses are correct.






Answer: D

In the wild, male house finches (Carpodus mexicanus) vary considerably in the amount of red pigmentation in their head and throat feathers, with colors ranging from pale yellow to bright red. These colors come from carotenoid pigments that are found in the birds' diets; no vertebrates are known to synthesize carotenoid pigments. Thus, the brighter red the male's feathers are, the more successful he has been at acquiring the red carotenoid pigment by his food-gathering efforts (all other factors being equal). During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following is true of this situation?

In the wild, male house finches (Carpodus mexicanus) vary considerably in the amount of red pigmentation in their head and throat feathers, with colors ranging from pale yellow to bright red. These colors come from carotenoid pigments that are found in the birds' diets; no vertebrates are known to synthesize carotenoid pigments. Thus, the brighter red the male's feathers are, the more successful he has been at acquiring the red carotenoid pigment by his food-gathering efforts (all other factors being equal). During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following is true of this situation? 

A) Alleles that promote more efficient acquisition of carotenoid-containing foods by males should increase over the course of generations.
B) Alleles that promote more effective deposition of carotenoid pigments in the feathers of males should increase over the course of generations.
C) There should be directional selection for bright red feathers in males.
D) Three of the statements are correct.
E) Two of the statements are correct.






Answer: D

Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of

Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of 

A) pansexual selection.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) intrasexual selection.
D) intersexual selection.
E) artificial selection.






Answer: D

Arrange the following from most general (i.e., most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least inclusive): 1. natural selection 2. microevolution 3. intrasexual selection 4. evolution 5. sexual selection

Arrange the following from most general (i.e., most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least inclusive):
1. natural selection
2. microevolution
3. intrasexual selection
4. evolution
5. sexual selection 

A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3






Answer: C

The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. Over the course of evolutionary time, what should occur?

The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. Over the course of evolutionary time, what should occur? 

A) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial species.
B) Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
C) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
D) Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria and bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time.
E) Both the first and second responses are correct.






Answer: D

The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from

The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from 

A) frequency-dependent selection.
B) evolutionary imbalance.
C) heterozygote advantage.
D) neutral variation.
E) genetic variation being preserved by diploidy.





Answer: A

What is true of natural selection?

What is true of natural selection? 

A) Natural selection is a random process.
B) Natural selection creates beneficial mutations.
C) The only way to eliminate harmful mutations is through natural selection.
D) Mutations occur at random; natural selection can preserve and distribute beneficial mutations.
E) Mutations occur when directed by the good of the species; natural selection edits out harmful mutations and causes populations to adapt to the beneficial mutations.







Answer: D

If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of

If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of 

A) genetic drift.
B) bottleneck effect.
C) founder effect.
D) all three of these.
E) both the first and third of these.







Answer: E

Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined, thereby producing a genetically distinctive virus, which can subsequently cause widespread disease. The production of new types of flu virus in the manner described above is most similar to the phenomenon of

Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined, thereby producing a genetically distinctive virus, which can subsequently cause widespread disease.
The production of new types of flu virus in the manner described above is most similar to the phenomenon of 

A) bottleneck effect.
B) founder effect.
C) natural selection.
D) gene flow.
E) sexual selection.





Answer: D

Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing

Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing 

A) nonrandom mating.
B) geographic isolation.
C) genetic drift.
D) gene flow.







Answer: D

Evolution

Evolution 

A) must happen, due to organisms’ innate desire to survive.
B) must happen whenever a population is not well-adapted to its environment.
C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met.
D) requires the operation of natural selection.
E) requires that populations become better suited to their environments.







Answer: C

In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population?

In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r = white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population? 

A) 0.36
B) 0.64
C) 0.75
D) 0.80






Answer: D

You sample a population of butterflies and find that 56% are heterozygous at a particular locus. What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?

You sample a population of butterflies and find that 56% are heterozygous at a particular locus. What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population? 

A) 0.07
B) 0.08
C) 0.09
D) 0.70
E) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.






Answer: E

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the frequency of individuals with AA genotype?

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the frequency of individuals with AA genotype? 

A) 0.20
B) 0.32
C) 0.42
D) 0.81
E) Genotype frequency cannot be determined from the information provided.






Answer: D

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele?

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele?

A) 0.2
B) 2.0
C) 4.0
D) 16.0
E) 32.0






Answer: E

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?

In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele? 

A) 0.09
B) 0.49
C) 0.9
D) 9.0
E) 49.0






Answer: D

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium must occur in populations wherein

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium must occur in populations wherein 

A) an allele remains fixed.
B) no genetic variation exists.
C) natural selection is not operating.
D) All three of the responses above are correct.
E) Only two of the responses above are correct.







Answer: E

In the formula for determining a population’s genotype frequencies, the pq in the term 2pq is necessary because

In the formula for determining a population’s genotype frequencies, the pq in the term 2pq is necessary because 

A) the population is diploid.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C) the population is doubling in number.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.






Answer: D

In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the 2 in the term 2pq is necessary because

In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies, the 2 in the term 2pq is necessary because 

A) the population is diploid.
B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C) the population is doubling in number.
D) heterozygotes have two alleles.







Answer: B

Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular locus

Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at a particular locus 

A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to the next, but its representation in homozygous and heterozygous genotypes may change.
B) natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change an allele's frequency.
C) this means that, at this locus, two alleles are present in equal proportions.
D) the population itself is not evolving, but individuals within the population may be evolving.






Answer: A

How many of these statements regarding populations are true? 1. Mature males and females of a population can interbreed with each other. 2. Populations are sometimes geographically isolated from other populations. 3. Biological species are made up of populations. 4. Members of a population tend to be genetically more similar to each other than to members of other populations. 5. Populations have genomes, but not gene pools.

How many of these statements regarding populations are true?
1. Mature males and females of a population can interbreed with each other.
2. Populations are sometimes geographically isolated from other populations.
3. Biological species are made up of populations.
4. Members of a population tend to be genetically more similar to each other than to members of other populations.
5. Populations have genomes, but not gene pools. 

A) Only one of these statements is true.
B) Two of these statements are true.
C) Three of these statements are true.
D) Four of these statements are true.
E) All five of these statements are true.






Answer: D

Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation?

Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation? 

A) It is created by the direct action of natural selection.
B) It arises in response to changes in the environment.
C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
D) It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.
E) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a lower average heterozygosity.








Answer: C

Most invertebrates have a cluster of ten similar Hox genes, all located on the same chromosome. Most vertebrates have four such clusters of Hox genes, located on four nonhomologous chromosomes. The process that could have potentially contributed to the cluster's presence on more than one chromosome was ________.

Most invertebrates have a cluster of ten similar Hox genes, all located on the same chromosome. Most vertebrates have four such clusters of Hox genes, located on four nonhomologous chromosomes. The process that could have potentially contributed to the cluster's presence on more than one chromosome was ________. 

A) binary fission
B) translation
C) gene duplication
D) nondisjunction
E) transcription







Answer: D

Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely) with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide: 1. insertion mutation deep within an intron 2. substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon 3. substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon 4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene

Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely) with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide:
1. insertion mutation deep within an intron
2. substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon
3. substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon
4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene 

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 1, 4, 3
D) 3, 1, 4, 2
E) 2, 3, 1, 4







Answer: B

Which statement about variation is true?

Which statement about variation is true? 

A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.
B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.
C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.
D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.
E) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines.






Answer: D

The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's

The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's 

A) nucleotide variability only.
B) genetic polyploidy only.
C) average heterozygosity only.
D) nucleotide variability, average heterozygosity, and genetic polyploidy.
E) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity only.








Answer: E

A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of

A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of 

A) a cline.
B) a bottleneck.
C) relative fitness.
D) genetic drift.
E) geographic variation.






Answer: A

In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Which of the following is a recognized source of variation for evolution?

In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Which of the following is a recognized source of variation for evolution? 

A) mistakes in translation of structural genes
B) mistakes in protein folding
C) rampant changes to the dictionary of the genetic code
D) binary fission
E) recombination by crossing over in meiosis








Answer: E

Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence?

Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? 

A) mutation
B) nonrandom mating
C) genetic drift
D) natural selection
E) gene flow





Answer: C

Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is true?

Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is true? 

A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted.
B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted.
C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation.
D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted.








Answer: B

Which of these variables is likely to undergo the largest change in value as the result of a mutation that introduces a brand-new allele into a population's gene pool at a locus that had formerly been fixed?

Which of these variables is likely to undergo the largest change in value as the result of a mutation that introduces a brand-new allele into a population's gene pool at a locus that had formerly been fixed? 

A) average heterozygosity
B) nucleotide variability
C) geographic variability
D) average number of loci







Answer: A

If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the species should be

If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the species should be 

A) 23%.
B) 46%.
C) 54%.
D) There is not enough information to say.







Answer: C

During an individual organism's lifetime, which of these is most likely to help the organism respond properly to changes in its environment?

During an individual organism's lifetime, which of these is most likely to help the organism respond properly to changes in its environment? 

A) microevolution
B) change in allele or gene frequency
C) change in gene expression
D) change in average heterozygosity





Answer: C

DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that

DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that 

A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B) humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C) chimpanzees evolved from humans.
D) convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities.
E) humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.





Answer: A

The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. However, genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these data?

The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. However, genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these data? 

A) Humans and bats evolved by natural selection, and whales evolved by Lamarckian mechanisms.
B) Forelimb evolution was adaptive in people and bats, but not in whales.
C) Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy.
D) Genes mutate faster in whales than in humans or bats.
E) Whales are not properly classified as mammals.







Answer: C

Within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat S. aureus infections in a community, all new infections were caused by MRSA. How can this result best be explained?

Within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat S. aureus infections in a community, all new infections were caused by MRSA. How can this result best be explained? 

A) S. aureus can resist vaccines.
B) A patient must have become infected with MRSA from another community.
C) In response to the drug, S. aureus began making drug-resistant versions of the protein targeted by the drug.
D) Some drug-resistant bacteria were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.
E) The drug caused the S. aureus DNA to change.







Answer: D

Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification?

Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification? 

A) Species diversity declines farther from the equator.
B) Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents.
C) Birds can be found on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds' maximum nonstop flight distance.
D) South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.
E) Earthquakes reshape life by causing mass extinctions.







Answer: D

Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?

Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?

A) There is heritable variation among individuals.
B) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
C) Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.
D) Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally leave more offspring than those whose characteristics are less well suited.
E) Only a fraction of an individual's offspring may survive.







Answer: B

About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza).

About 13 different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the 13 species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). 

If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction? 

A) They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea.
B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species.
C) They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches.
D) The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species.


Answer: B

According to a 1999 study, the vegetarian finch is genetically no more similar to the tree finches than it is to the ground finches, despite the fact that it is placed in the same genus as the tree finches. Based on this finding, it is reasonable to conclude that the vegetarian finch 

A) is no more closely related to the tree finches than it is to the ground finches, despite its classification.
B) should be re-classified as a warbler finch.
C) is not truly a descendent of the original ancestral finch.
D) is a hybrid species, resulting from a cross between a ground finch and a tree finch.


Answer: A

A 14th species that descended from the original ancestral finch, the Cocos Island finch, is endemic to its namesake island, located 550 km off Costa Rica. The Cocos Island finch is genetically much more similar to the tree finches than is the vegetarian finch, yet it is classified in its own genus Pinarolaxias. Moreover, the Cocos Island finch and the vegetarian finch are the two finch species that are most genetically different from the ancestral Galápagos finch. Thus, if classification is to reflect evolutionary relationships, the vegetarian finch should 

A) remain in the genus Camarhynchus.
B) be switched from Camarhynchus to Certhidea.
C) be switched from Camarhynchus to Pinarolaxias.
D) be switched from Camarhynchus to Geospiza.
E) be placed in its own genus.


Answer: E

A high degree of endemism is most likely in environments that are

A high degree of endemism is most likely in environments that are 

A) easily reached and heterogeneous.
B) isolated and heterogeneous.
C) isolated and homogeneous.
D) isolated and extremely cold.
E) easily reached and homogeneous.






Answer: B

If one wanted to find the largest number of endemic species, one should visit which of the following geological features (assuming each has existed for several millions of years)?

If one wanted to find the largest number of endemic species, one should visit which of the following geological features (assuming each has existed for several millions of years)? 

A) an isolated ocean island in the tropics
B) an extensive mountain range
C) a midcontinental grassland with extreme climatic conditions
D) a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast






Answer: A

It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that

It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that 

A) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors.
B) common environments are inhabited by the same organisms.
C) the islands were originally part of the continent.
D) the island forms and mainland forms are converging.
E) island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools.






Answer: A

What is true of pseudogenes?

What is true of pseudogenes? 

A) They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA.
B) They are the same things as introns.
C) They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product.
D) They are vestigial genes.






Answer: D

What must be true of any organ that is described as vestigial?

What must be true of any organ that is described as vestigial? 

A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
D) It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.







Answer: B

Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was terrestrial. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals?

Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was terrestrial. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals? 

A) homologous; homologous
B) analogous; homologous
C) homologous; analogous
D) analogous; analogous






Answer: C

Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are

Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are 

A) homologous.
B) examples of convergent evolution.
C) adaptations to a common environment.
D) Three of the responses above are correct.
E) Two of the responses above are correct.





Answer: E

Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution?

Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution? 

A) The two species live at great distance from each other.
B) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical.
C) The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.








Answer: B

Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ?

Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ? 

A) The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects.
B) The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids.
C) The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue.
D) Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-sized appendix.
E) In a million years, the human species might completely lack an appendix.





Answer: C

Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree?

Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree? 

A) None of the organisms depicted by the tree ate the same foods.
B) Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats.
C) The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (in other words, some bones were missing).
D) Transitional fossils had not been found.
E) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns.







Answer: E

Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?

Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? 

A) All organisms require energy.
B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
C) All organisms reproduce.
D) All organisms show heritable variation.
E) All organisms have undergone evolution.







Answer: B

A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a dedicated printer. Which View feature meets these requirements?

A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a dedicated printer.
Which View feature meets these requirements? 

A. ThinPrint-based printing
B. Location-based printing
C. Central-based printing
D. Local-based printing





Answer: B

A security audit of the View environment has determined that View Administrator sessions remain open indefinitely, which is flagged as a security vulnerability. Which feature setting should be changed in View Administrator to address this issue?

A security audit of the View environment has determined that View Administrator sessions remain open indefinitely, which is flagged as a security vulnerability.
Which feature setting should be changed in View Administrator to address this issue? 

A. Set the timeout to 0 seconds.
B. Clear the Enable Persistent Connection checkbox.
C. Set the timeout to 1200 seconds.
D. Clear the Enable Automatic Status Updates checkbox.








Answer: D

Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)

Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore alarm? (Choose three.) 

A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.







Answer: A,B,E

An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using over 90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer. Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a script? (Choose three.)

An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using over 90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a script? (Choose three.) 

A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares






Answer: A,B,D

Recently, a storage interface card in an ESXi 5.x host has been experiencing inconsistent connectivity states. Which two methods can be used to quickly identify the issue and immediately notify an administrator so that the issue can be resolved? (Choose two.)

Recently, a storage interface card in an ESXi 5.x host has been experiencing inconsistent connectivity states.
Which two methods can be used to quickly identify the issue and immediately notify an administrator so that the issue can be resolved? (Choose two.) 

A. Set up an alarm with the Lost Storage Path trigger to send an email for notification when the connection is lost.
B. Set up an alarm with the Lost Storage Connectivity trigger to send an email for notification when the connection is lost.
C. Set up an alarm with the Storage Redundancy Degraded trigger and configure an SNMP trap for notification when the connection is lost.
D. Set up an alarm with the Lost Storage Connectivity trigger and configure an SNMP trap for notification when the connection is lost.







Answer: B,D

A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original install media for the legacy application disappears. Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all users?

A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original install media for the legacy application disappears.
Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all users? 

A. Side by Side update
B. SBmerge
C. ThinApp Merge
D. AppSync






Answer: B

A system administrator needs to provide a service pack update to a currently deployed ThinApp package. Which ThinApp feature enables a deployed ThinApp package to automatically contact an HTTP or UNC location for updates?

A system administrator needs to provide a service pack update to a currently deployed ThinApp package.
Which ThinApp feature enables a deployed ThinApp package to automatically contact an HTTP or UNC location for updates? 

A. ThinApp AppLink
B. ThinApp Update Manager
C. ThinApp AppSync
D. ThinApp Sync Manager







Answer: C

View users are complaining of slow launch times for their ThinApp applications. Which action will ensure that the users have the fastest login times as well as application launches?

View users are complaining of slow launch times for their ThinApp applications.
Which action will ensure that the users have the fastest login times as well as application launches? 

A. Enable the Files and Folders to preload group policy.
B. Enable the Folders to background download group policy.
C. Execute your ThinApp applications with fast cache enabled.
D. Verify the ThinApp repository is on SSD drives.







Answer: B

The Windows XP virtual machine with View Persona Management is not functioning properly. When the users are logging off they do not always capture the latest changes to their desktop environment. What configuration step was missed?

The Windows XP virtual machine with View Persona Management is not functioning properly. When the users are logging off they do not always capture the latest changes to their desktop environment.
What configuration step was missed? 

A. The Win7/Vista agent was not installed.
B. UPHClean was not installed in the image.
C. Windows XP was not upgraded to Service Pack 2.
D. The user does not have the proper rights on the network server.






Answer: B

A View Security Server has been configured to allow external RDP access using SSL to the internal View Desktops. Users are reporting that they are unable to connect. Which configuration setting should the administrator verify to diagnose this problem?

A View Security Server has been configured to allow external RDP access using SSL to the internal View Desktops. Users are reporting that they are unable to connect.
Which configuration setting should the administrator verify to diagnose this problem? 

A. RDP access is enabled on the Security Server.
B. The remote connection timeout is set to 10.
C. Port 443 is open on the firewall.
D. Port 3389 is disabled on the firewall.








Answer: C

A user wants to receive an email notification when the virtual machine CPU usage enters a warning state and again when the condition enters a alarm state. Which two state changes must be selected to receive the appropriate notifications? (Choose two.)

A user wants to receive an email notification when the virtual machine CPU usage enters a warning state and again when the condition enters a alarm state.
Which two state changes must be selected to receive the appropriate notifications? (Choose two.) 

A. Yellow-red state change
B. Red-green state change
C. Yellow-green state change
D. Green-yellow state change






Answer: A,D

A group of desktop users report that when they attempt to log in to their corporate View environment, they are unable to establish a secure connection to the Security Server. What should the administrator do to determine the cause of the connection problem?

A group of desktop users report that when they attempt to log in to their corporate View environment, they are unable to establish a secure connection to the Security Server.
What should the administrator do to determine the cause of the connection problem? 

A. Verify that the desktop pool is enabled for connections.
B. Confirm that the external URL maps to an internal IP address.
C. Examine the log files on both the Connection Server and the Security Server.
D. Verify that the Security Server and the domain controller are communicating.






Answer: C

The performance graph for a virtual machine with 1GB of RAM shows the Swap In rate to be 150 MBps and the Balloon value to be at 0 MB. Users of the virtual machine are complaining that performance is slow. Which two actions could increase performance of the virtual machine? (Choose two.)

The performance graph for a virtual machine with 1GB of RAM shows the Swap In rate to be 150 MBps and the Balloon value to be at 0 MB. Users of the virtual machine are complaining that performance is slow.
Which two actions could increase performance of the virtual machine? (Choose two.) 

A. Install the VMMEMCTL driver on the ESXi host.
B. Increase the memory share value for this virtual machine.
C. Install VMware Tools into this virtual machine.
D. Disable swapping in the virtual machine operating system.








Answer: B,C

It appears that a single vCPU virtual machine in a resource pool called Production is having performance problems because it does not have enough CPU resources available. Which two methods can be used to improve performance and reduce CPU contention of this virtual machine while maintaining compatibility with DRS? (Choose two.)

It appears that a single vCPU virtual machine in a resource pool called Production is having performance problems because it does not have enough CPU resources available.
Which two methods can be used to improve performance and reduce CPU contention of this virtual machine while maintaining compatibility with DRS? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure a CPU reservation for this virtual machine.
B. Increase the CPU shares for the resource pool.
C. Increase the CPU shares for the virtual machine.
D. Increase the share priority setting for the Production resource pool.






Answer: A,C

Which three requirements must be met in order to use Storage I/O Control? (Choose three.)

Which three requirements must be met in order to use Storage I/O Control? (Choose three.) 

A. The datastore must contain multiple VMFS extents.
B. The datastore must contain a single NFS volume.
C. The datastore must not include virtual machines with snapshots.
D. The datastore must be managed by a single vCenter Server.
E. Array-based automated storage tiering must be explicitly certified.







Answer: B,D,E

Which three statements regarding Network I/O Control (NetIOC) are accurate? (Choose three.)

Which three statements regarding Network I/O Control (NetIOC) are accurate? (Choose three.) 

A. Enforce traffic bandwidth limit on the overall vDS set of dvUplinks.
B. Limits enforces maximum throughput control on a virtual machine.
C. Load based teaming efficiently uses a vDS set of dvUplinks for network capacity.
D. Isolation allows domination by any one traffic flow.
E. Relative shares fairly allocates available bandwidth among multiple flows.








Answer: A,C,E

Which two conditions could prevent HA from powering on a virtual machine? (Choose two.)

Which two conditions could prevent HA from powering on a virtual machine? (Choose two.) 

A. There is not enough free memory to meet the guests memory reservation.
B. The virtual machine has been assigned a required affinity rule.
C. Strict admission control is disabled for the HA cluster.
D. The vCenter is hosted on the ESXi host that failed.







Answer: A,B

An administrator is configuring admission control settings for a vSphere HA cluster. The administrator selects the option Allow VMs to Be Powered On Even if They Violate Availability Constraints. Which two events occur during an ESXi host failure? (Choose two.)

An administrator is configuring admission control settings for a vSphere HA cluster. The administrator selects the option Allow VMs to Be Powered On Even if They Violate Availability Constraints.
Which two events occur during an ESXi host failure? (Choose two.) 

A. Virtual machines with a High restart priority are restarted first.
B. Virtual machines with a Low restart priority are not restarted.
C. HA will not restart virtual machines configured for FT.
D. Virtual machines with VM monitoring set to enabled are restarted.







Answer: A,C

An administrator is migrating a virtual machine in a DRS cluster. The migration fails the validation check because of a CPU incompatibility issue. Which items below could be causing this issue? (Choose two.)

An administrator is migrating a virtual machine in a DRS cluster. The migration fails the validation check because of a CPU incompatibility issue.
Which items below could be causing this issue? (Choose two.) 

A. Inconsistent CPU manufacturers
B. Inconsistent CPU steppings
C. Inconsistent CPU generations
D. Inconsistent CPU GHZ







Answer: A,C

An administrator finds that vMotion and Storage vMotion operations do not succeed on a virtual machine. The virtual machine has been configured with N_Port ID Virtualization. The virtual machine has two data RDMs, one using a RAID5 LUN and one using a RAID0+1 LUN. The mapping file for the RAID5 LUN was created on the same datastore as the virtual machine, and the mapping file for the RAID0+1 LUN was placed in a datastore used for production data virtual disks. Which two statements are true about this configuration? (Choose two.)

An administrator finds that vMotion and Storage vMotion operations do not succeed on a virtual machine. The virtual machine has been configured with N_Port ID Virtualization. The virtual machine has two data RDMs, one using a RAID5 LUN and one using a RAID0+1 LUN. The mapping file for the RAID5 LUN was created on the same datastore as the virtual machine, and the mapping file for the RAID0+1 LUN was placed in a datastore used for production data virtual disks.
Which two statements are true about this configuration? (Choose two.) 

A. Storage vMotion cannot be used unless both mapping files are placed on the same datastore.
B. vMotion cannot be used unless both mapping files are placed on the same datastore.
C. vMotion cannot be used with RDMs.
D. Storage vMotion cannot be used with NPIV.






Answer: B,D

An administrator is configuring Storage DRS in their environment. The Datastore cluster is composed of 4 VMFS3 volumes and 9 VMFS5 volumes. Storage DRS has been enabled, but is showing as disabled on several virtual machine disks in the datastore cluster. Which two conditions would cause this error to occur? (Choose two.)

An administrator is configuring Storage DRS in their environment. The Datastore cluster is composed of 4 VMFS3 volumes and 9 VMFS5 volumes. Storage DRS has been enabled, but is showing as disabled on several virtual machine disks in the datastore cluster.
Which two conditions would cause this error to occur? (Choose two.) 

A. The virtual machine is stored on a VMFS 3 volume.
B. One or more virtual machines have Persistent disks.
C. The virtual machine is stored on a NFS datastore.
D. The virtual machine is stored on a datastore with a 2mb block size.








Answer: A,B

Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 5.0, the option to set the PCoIP External URL of the Security Server is not available from the View Manager Interface. What is the likely cause of the problem?

Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 5.0, the option to set the PCoIP External URL of the Security Server is not available from the View Manager Interface.
What is the likely cause of the problem? 

A. The View Security Server was not upgraded to version 5.0.
B. The External URL should have been set during the installation of the View Security Server.
C. The View Security Server service is not running on the View Connection Server.
D. The External URL was not configured from the View Security Server Management Interface.







Answer: A

A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 5.0 Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message from the View Client: The connection to the remote computer ended. What is the likely cause of this error?

A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 5.0 Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message from the View Client:
The connection to the remote computer ended.
What is the likely cause of this error? 

A. The Security Server is not configured to accept PCoIP connection remotely.
B. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set to an incorrect address.
C. The VPN connection was not established prior to the user connecting to the View environment.
D. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set using an incorrect port.







Answer: C

A single View Connection Server is being used for both internal and external access to View desktops. Internal users are able to connect without issue. However, external users receive an error message indicating that the Connection Server cannot be reached. The corporate firewall configuration has been verified and all the required ports are open. What is the likely cause of the problem?

A single View Connection Server is being used for both internal and external access to View desktops. Internal users are able to connect without issue. However, external users receive an error message indicating that the Connection Server cannot be reached. The corporate firewall configuration has been verified and all the required ports are open.
What is the likely cause of the problem? 

A. Port 443 is not open between vCenter and the View Connection Server.
B. The external URL is not configured correctly in View Administrator.
C. The Use Secure Tunnel connection to Desktop is checked in View Administrator.
D. The Connection Server is not on an externally routable network.







Answer: B

The View administrator expands the existing View environment by adding a third View Replica Connection Server. The desktop administrator logs in to the replica and discovers that none of the pools or desktops are visible. What is the likely cause of the problem?

The View administrator expands the existing View environment by adding a third View Replica Connection Server. The desktop administrator logs in to the replica and discovers that none of the pools or desktops are visible.
What is the likely cause of the problem? 

A. The Active Directory Application Mode has not been installed on the Replica Server.
B. The Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services has not been installed.
C. The Active Directory Application Mode instance has not completed replication.
D. The primary domain controller has not completed replication of the Global Catalog.




Answer: C

An administrator is attempting to troubleshoot an external user who cannot connect to the View Desktop through the PCoIP Secure Gateway. The following is observed:

An administrator is attempting to troubleshoot an external user who cannot connect to the View Desktop through the PCoIP Secure Gateway.
The following is observed: 

A. Update the View Client settings to use the AES-128 encryption algorithm.
B. Update the pcoip.adm Group Policy template to enable the AES-128 encryption algorithm.
C. Update the vdm_agent.adm Group Policy to enable Salsa-256 encryption algorithm.
D. Update the View Agent to include Salsa-256 in the trusted.cyphers setting.






Answer: B

The administrator has enabled 3D for the View desktops and they are running dual monitors on the client. Users are able to login and interact with their desktops but the 3D feature is not working. What setting does the administrator need to verify to enable 3D?

The administrator has enabled 3D for the View desktops and they are running dual monitors on the client. Users are able to login and interact with their desktops but the 3D feature is not working.
What setting does the administrator need to verify to enable 3D? 

A. The desktops must have hardware v7.x or later.
B. The max resolution per monitor cannot exceed 1920x1200.
C. The pool is configured to enable 3D acceleration.
D. The VRAM size is not set to 256MB for your desktop.






Answer: B

An administrator is optimizing his View environment. Users are reporting that they are experiencing poor performance on their View desktops. Which configuration in the PCoIP Group Policy Template would improve performance?

An administrator is optimizing his View environment. Users are reporting that they are experiencing poor performance on their View desktops. Which configuration in the PCoIP Group Policy Template would improve performance? 

A. Add a value to the PCoIPImaging_Policy.
B. Add a value to the PCoIPTcpServer_Policy.
C. Change the PCoIPEncryption_Policy pcoip.enable_salsa20_256_round12 to 1.
D. Change the PCoIPMtuSize_Policy to a value of 1500 from 1300





Answer: A

Which PCoIP Group Policy template option would provide the optimal graphic performance in a virtual desktop?

Which PCoIP Group Policy template option would provide the optimal graphic performance in a virtual desktop? 

A. pcoip.minimum_frame_rate
B. pcoip.maximum_image_quality
C. pcoip.maximum_initial_image_quality
D. pcoip.minimum_quality






Answer: C

Several users are connecting to View Desktops running Windows 7 across a T1 link to a remote data center using PCoIP Zero Clients and iPad tablet devices. What PCoIP optimization would reduce the overall bandwidth required to support these users?

Several users are connecting to View Desktops running Windows 7 across a T1 link to a remote data center using PCoIP Zero Clients and iPad tablet devices. What PCoIP optimization would reduce the overall bandwidth required to support these users? 

A. Enable Client Side Caching in the View Client options on the devices.
B. Enable the Lossless Codec in the PCoIP Group Policy Settings.
C. Enable Support for MMR in the View Agent installation options.
D. Turn off Build to Lossless in the PCoIP Group Policy Settings.







Answer: D

An administrator has View installed in a WAN environment with tunneling enabled using two Security Servers and a load balancer. What value must be entered in the PCoIP External URL to support PCoIP connections through the Security Server?

An administrator has View installed in a WAN environment with tunneling enabled using two Security Servers and a load balancer.
What value must be entered in the PCoIP External URL to support PCoIP connections through the Security Server? 

A. The fully qualified external name of the load balancer
B. The fully qualified external name of the Security Server
C. The external IP address and port of the Security Server
D. This field should be left blank when using a load balancer with PCoIP







Answer: C

An administrator has View installed in a LAN environment with tunneling disabled. Users are reporting that when they try to cut-and-paste from their View Desktop to the endpoint device, the operation does not work. What setting can be used to enable this feature?

An administrator has View installed in a LAN environment with tunneling disabled. Users are reporting that when they try to cut-and-paste from their View Desktop to the endpoint device, the operation does not work.
What setting can be used to enable this feature? 

A. Change the Configure Clipboard Redirection option in the PCoIP Group Policy settings to Enabled in Both Directions.
B. Isolation.tools.copy.disable=false
C. Cut and Paste from the virtual desktop to the endpoint cannot be enabled due to security concerns.
D. Enable the Bidirectional Cut and Paste option under the PCoIP settings for the desktop pool in View Manager, and refresh the pool.





Answer: A

An administrator has View installed in a LAN environment with tunneling disabled. When users connect from the View Client on a Windows 7 laptop, they can authenticate and select a pool, but receive a black screen when connecting with PCoIP. After 10 seconds, their session automatically disconnects. RDP users are not affected. What port is likely being blocked by a firewall to cause this issue?

An administrator has View installed in a LAN environment with tunneling disabled. When users connect from the View Client on a Windows 7 laptop, they can authenticate and select a pool, but receive a black screen when connecting with PCoIP. After 10 seconds, their session automatically disconnects. RDP users are not affected. What port is likely being blocked by a firewall to cause this issue? 

A. Port 50002/UDP
B. Port 4172/UDP
C. Port 3389/TCP
D. Port 443/TCP






Answer: B

An organization has two large office locations connected by a WAN connection that is already heavily saturated with traffic. An administrator installs a Master View Connection Server at site A and a Replica Connection Server at site B. For desktops that are deployed the displayed state or availability is incorrect in many cases. What causes these inconsistencies?

An organization has two large office locations connected by a WAN connection that is already heavily saturated with traffic.
An administrator installs a Master View Connection Server at site A and a Replica Connection Server at site B. For desktops that are deployed the displayed state or availability is incorrect in many cases.
What causes these inconsistencies? 

A. DNS entries for the Connection Servers are missing or incorrect.
B. View Connection Servers in a single pod cannot be deployed across a WAN link.
C. Firewalls between the sites must allow TCP port 4001 for synchronization.
D. At least one shared datastore must be used between the sites for pool status synchronization.







Answer: B

In the View Administrator Dashboard, a datastore is highlighted as being unavailable, even though there are several virtual desktops active and running from this datastore. What is the cause of this unavailable status?

In the View Administrator Dashboard, a datastore is highlighted as being unavailable, even though there are several virtual desktops active and running from this datastore.
What is the cause of this unavailable status? 

A. Some, but not all, vSphere hosts in the cluster have the datastore defined.
B. The datastore was out of space and the error has not yet been cleared in vCenter Server.
C. View Composer provisioning has been manually disabled for the datastore in one or more pools.
D. The datastore has been configured for High Availability (HA) Heartbeat which is not compatible with View Composer.







Answer: A

A DRS cluster with two ESXi hosts is set to fully automated mode. One host in the cluster is running at 98 percent CPU utilization. The other host is running at 52 percent utilization. Upon analysis, it appears that none of the virtual machines are being migrated from the CPU- constrained host, and no recommendations are being generated. What are the two most likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

A DRS cluster with two ESXi hosts is set to fully automated mode. One host in the cluster is running at 98 percent CPU utilization. The other host is running at 52 percent utilization. Upon analysis, it appears that none of the virtual machines are being migrated from the CPU- constrained host, and no recommendations are being generated.
What are the two most likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.) 

A. The VMkernel port is assigned an incorrect IP address.
B. vMotion is not enabled on the VMkernel port.
C. DRS migration Threshold is not set high enough.
D. VMware DRS is not set to Fully Automated.








Answer: A,B

Which two circumstances might cause a DRS cluster to become invalid? (Choose two.)

Which two circumstances might cause a DRS cluster to become invalid? (Choose two.) 

A. DRS has been disabled on one or more ESXi hosts.
B. An ESXi host has been removed from the cluster.
C. A migration on a virtual machine is attempted while the virtual machine is failing over.
D. Virtual machines have been powered on from a vSphere Client connected directly to an ESXi host.








Answer: B,D

An administrator has determined that storage performance to a group of virtual machines is reduced during peak activity. The virtual machines are located in a VMFS datastore called Production1 on an active-active storage array. The ESXi host running the virtual machines is configured with an MRU multipathing policy. Which two actions can be taken to improve the storage performance of these virtual machines? (Choose two.)

An administrator has determined that storage performance to a group of virtual machines is reduced during peak activity. The virtual machines are located in a VMFS datastore called Production1 on an active-active storage array. The ESXi host running the virtual machines is configured with an MRU multipathing policy.
Which two actions can be taken to improve the storage performance of these virtual machines? (Choose two.) 

A. Add virtual storage, create a VMFS datastore called Production2 on the new storage, and then migrate some of the virtual machines from Production1 to Production2.
B. Change the storage multipathing policy to Round Robin.
C. Add physical storage, create a VMFS datastore called Production2 on the new storage, and then migrate some of the virtual machines from Production1 to Production2.
D. Change the storage multipathing policy to MRU.







Answer: B,C

An administrator must decommission a datastore. Before unmounting the datastore, which three requirements must be fullfilled? (Choose three.)

An administrator must decommission a datastore.
Before unmounting the datastore, which three requirements must be fullfilled? (Choose three.) 

A. No virtual machines reside on the datastore.
B. The datastore is not used for vSphere HA heartbeat.
C. No registered virtual machines reside on the datastore.
D. The datastore must not have any extents.
E. The datastore must not be part of a datastore cluster.







Answer: B,C,E

An administrator wants to adjust disk resource allocation to ensure proper storage performance. Which mechanisms are available? (Choose two)

An administrator wants to adjust disk resource allocation to ensure proper storage performance.
Which mechanisms are available? (Choose two) 

A. Shares
B. Guarantee IOPs
C. Limit IOPs
D. Reservation






Answer: A,C

A request has been made to the SAN administrator to provision a new LUN. A LUN (LUN 6) is created, and the SAN administrator presents the LUN to an ESXi host, using the storage array SAN management software. The administrator looks at the Storage configuration for the ESXi host, and does not see the new LUN. Other LUNs from the same storage array are visible. Which two conditions are most likely to cause the error described? (Choose two.)

A request has been made to the SAN administrator to provision a new LUN. A LUN (LUN 6) is created, and the SAN administrator presents the LUN to an ESXi host, using the storage array SAN management software. The administrator looks at the Storage configuration for the ESXi host, and does not see the new LUN. Other LUNs from the same storage array are visible.
Which two conditions are most likely to cause the error described? (Choose two.) 

A. The administrator has not performed a Rescan All on the ESXi server.
B. The multipathing policy has been set to Fixed for the LUN.
C. Zoning on the Fibre Channel switches is not configured correctly.
D. The LUN was not presented to the correct ESXi host.






Answer: A,D

Users are complaining that they cannot access their files on a file server virtual machine. The vSphere Client shows that a triggered alarm stating disk latency is beyond the default threshold for the datastore where the file server virtual machine is located. The path selection policy has been set by the ESXi host to Fixed with default path settings. Which two options could be used to increase performance of the file server virtual machine? (Choose two.)

Users are complaining that they cannot access their files on a file server virtual machine. The vSphere Client shows that a triggered alarm stating disk latency is beyond the default threshold for the datastore where the file server virtual machine is located. The path selection policy has been set by the ESXi host to Fixed with default path settings.
Which two options could be used to increase performance of the file server virtual machine? (Choose two.) 

A. Use disk shares to increase the priority for the datastore housing the file server virtual machine.
B. Use vMotion to reloacte the VM to an ESXi host with loser HBA saturation.
C. Change the path selection policy to Round Robin.
D. Change the path selection policy to Most Recently Used (MRU).







Answer: B,C

An administrator receives a complaint that a virtual machine is performing poorly. The user attributes the issue to poor storage performance. If the storage array is the bottleneck, which two counters would be higher than normal? (Choose two.)

An administrator receives a complaint that a virtual machine is performing poorly. The user attributes the issue to poor storage performance.
If the storage array is the bottleneck, which two counters would be higher than normal? (Choose two.) 

A. Average ESXi VMKernel latency per command, in milliseconds
B. Average ESXi highest latency, in milliseconds
C. Average virtual machine operating system latency per command, in milliseconds
D. Number of SCSI reservation conflicts per second






Answer: B,C

A user attempts a remote SSH connection to a newly-installed ESXi 5.x host to execute some commands. The SSH connection attempt fails, though the user is able to receive a ICMP ping back from the host. What must the administrator do to enable SSH. (Choose two.)

A user attempts a remote SSH connection to a newly-installed ESXi 5.x host to execute some commands. The SSH connection attempt fails, though the user is able to receive a ICMP ping back from the host.
What must the administrator do to enable SSH. (Choose two.) 

A. Enable root logon on the ESXi server.
B. Open the SSH port on the ESXi firewall.
C. Start the SSH service on the ESXi server.
D. Create a local user on the ESXi server.







Answer: B,C

An administrator has configured a vNetwork Distributed Switch to send all network traffic to a collector virtual machine for analysis. However, after checking the collector virtual machine several hours later the administrator finds that no data has been collected. vSphere 5 has been deployed in the datacenter. Which two items below could be causing this issue? (Choose two.)

An administrator has configured a vNetwork Distributed Switch to send all network traffic to a collector virtual machine for analysis. However, after checking the collector virtual machine several hours later the administrator finds that no data has been collected. vSphere 5 has been deployed in the datacenter.
Which two items below could be causing this issue? (Choose two.) 

A. The source virtual machine does not have Promiscuous Mode enabled.
B. The source and target virtual machines are not both on the same vNetwork Distributed Switch.
C. The port group or distributed does not have Promiscuous Mode enabled.
D. The port group or distributed port does not have NetFlow enabled.








Answer: B,D

An iSCSI array is being added to a vSphere 5 implementation. An administrator wants to verify that all IP storage VMkernel interfaces are configured for jumbo frames. What are two methods to verify this configuration? (Choose two.)

An iSCSI array is being added to a vSphere 5 implementation. An administrator wants to verify that all IP storage VMkernel interfaces are configured for jumbo frames.
What are two methods to verify this configuration? (Choose two.) 

A. Run the esxcli network ip interface list command
B. Run the esxcfg-vswif -l command
C. Ensure that the Enable Jumbo Frames box is checked in the VMkernel interface properties in the vSphere client
D. Ensure that the MTU size is set correctly in the VMkernel interface properties in the vSphere client






Answer: A,D

The RDP performance for a virtual machine on an ESXi host appears to be degraded. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

The RDP performance for a virtual machine on an ESXi host appears to be degraded.
What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.) 

A. The virtual machine has a high Ready value.
B. The virtual machine's network adaptor is not configured to Connect at power on.
C. The virtual machine's network adaptor is not configured as connected.
D. The virtual machine is on a physical network that has become saturated.








Answer: A,D

An administrator finds that an ESXi host cannot be managed by vCenter Server. Which logs can be reviewed using the DCUI?

An administrator finds that an ESXi host cannot be managed by vCenter Server.
Which logs can be reviewed using the DCUI? 

A. Syslog
B. Config log
C. Virtual Center Agent
D. ESXi shell logs
E. VMware HA log






Answer: A,B,C

An administrator notices that log files kept on an ESXi host are being rotated very quickly, inhibiting the troubleshooting of an issue. Which two configuration changes will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

An administrator notices that log files kept on an ESXi host are being rotated very quickly, inhibiting the troubleshooting of an issue.
Which two configuration changes will resolve the issue? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure syslog to send the logs a syslog server
B. Increase the number of logs kept
C. Increase the logging level
D. Increase the size of the partition where log files are stored







Answer: A,B

vCenter reports a connectivity problem with a ESXi 5.x host that is not a member of a cluster. An administrator attempts to connect directly to the host using the vSphere Client but fails with the message "An unknown connection error occured." Virtual machines running on the host appear to be running and report no problem. What two methods would likely resolve the issue without affecting the virtual machines? (Choose two.)

vCenter reports a connectivity problem with a ESXi 5.x host that is not a member of a cluster. An administrator attempts to connect directly to the host using the vSphere Client but fails with the message "An unknown connection error occured." Virtual machines running on the host appear to be running and report no problem.
What two methods would likely resolve the issue without affecting the virtual machines? (Choose two.) 

A. Enter the service mgmt-vmware restart command from either SSH or local CLI
B. Select Restart Management Agents in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
C. Select Reboot Host in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
D. Enter the services.sh restart command from either SSH or the local CLI






Answer: B,D